Maverick Philosopher

Nihil philosophicum a me alienum puto

To promote independent thought about ultimates. Philosophy, commentary on the passing scene, and whatever else turns my crank. Since 4 May 2004. By William F. Vallicella, Ph.D., Gold Canyon, Arizona, USA. Motto: "Study everything, join nothing." (Paul Brunton) Latin Motto: Omnia mea mecum porto. Turkish motto: Yol bilen kervana katilmaz. (He who knows the road does not join the caravan.) All material copyrighted.

The Question of the Reality of God: Wittgensteinian Fideism No Answer

Taking a Wittgensteinian line, D. Z. Phillips construes the question of the reality of God as like the question of the reality of physical objects in general, and unlike the question of the reality of unicorns, say. Phillips would therefore have a bone to pick with Edward 'Cactus Ed' Abbey who writes,

Is there a God? Who knows? Is there an angry unicorn on the dark side of the moon?

Abbey's meaning is clear: It is as idle to suppose that there is a God as to suppose that there is an irate unicorn on the far side of the moon. Of course, there could be such a unicorn. It is logically possible in that there is no contradiction in the idea. It is also epistemically possible in that the supposition is consistent with what we know. (Perhaps a clever extraterrestrial scientist synthesized a unicorn, put him in a space suit, and deposited the unfortunate critter on the moon.) But there is no positive reason to believe in something so outlandish. The same goes for God according to Abbey, Russell, and plenty of others.

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Related Posts (on one page):

  1. The Question of the Reality of God: Wittgensteinian Fideism No Answer
  2. What is Wrong and What is Right with Wittgenstein's Philosophy of Religion
Posted by William F. Vallicella on Tuesday March 27, 2007 at 7:15pm
w_ockham (mail) (www):
I'm very puzzled by all this, for similar reasons that I was puzzled by the previous post on language games. I take it that the language game hypothesis is a way of avoiding 'truth conditions'. Just as there aren't truth conditions for promises or prayers, pleas, remarks like 'how pretty she is', is the idea that there aren't truth conditions for 'God exists'? But there aren't truth conditions for promises &c because there is no way of even stating truth conditions in the form 'it is the case that p iff p'. 'It is the case that may I have some more porridge iff may I have some more porridge' makes no sense. And you can't deny a plea or promise in the way that you can deny the truth of an affirmation.

Yet I can assert that God exists, and you may deny it. And it is true that God exists iff there is such a being as God.

On the comparison to chess, can't I make the existential statement that the rule of checkmate exists in chess, or that there is no (i.e. there doesn't exist) and offside rule in chess? And there are instances of checkmate. We can ask whether that 'was' an instance of checkmate or not, or whether that player was really offside, and so whether an instance of offside exists.

>> Is it reasonable that one cannot castle out of check, into check, or though [through?] check? ... Similarly, for Phillips, it is neither reasonable nor unreasonable that God exists.

I don't understand this at all. The logical form of 'the rules of chess forbid castling out of check' has no obvious resemblance to 'God exists'. The logical form of the latter is either a general existential – 'there something with the properties of x y z' (say, omniscient, omnipotence &c), or a singular proposition, that the term 'God', as used in the Old Testament, say, has a reference. There is no mention of a rule or games or anything like that, or of reasonability or unreasonability.
3.28.2007 5:15am
Bill Vallicella (mail) (www):
Ockham,

Thanks for the detailed response. "I take it that the language game hypothesis is a way of avoiding 'truth conditions'." That sounds right to me. If meaning is use, then the performative aspect of language (made much of by J. L. Ausin and Co.) comes to the fore with the result that fact-stating language is slighted. I argue that meaning cannot be identified with use here.

So I'm as puzzled as you are, but I'm a bit more dogmatic. I say it is just false that 'God exists' has no truth conditions. A question about porridge. Is this any hot breakfast cereal made of grains, or must it be made of some particular grain like wheat or oats?

Checkmate is not a rule, though there are rules governing it; checkmate is a state, the state the king is in when he is in check but the check cannot be removed either by a king move or by a capture of the the offending (checking) piece or pawn, or by interposing a piece or pawn. But you are right that there is a distinction between checkmate and as instance of it, and that there can be a question whether a putative mate really is a mate.

If I understand Phillips, he is saying that 'God exists' is a rule within a religious language game in the same way that the castling rule is a rule in chess. If you play (standard) chess, then there is no question but that you must accept the castling rule as spelled out in the FIDE rule book, say. And obviously there is nothing in reality outside the game that makes the rule true. Similarly, 'God exists' cannot be questioned from within theistic LGs, and there can be no talk of proving this rule, or supporting it, or judging its reasonableness. This has the effect of insulating rel from phil and scientific criticism -- which is presumably why is it called 'fideism.'

If I am playing chess, I cannot ask whether it is really true that I must not castle into check. There is no true or false about it. Same with 'God exists.' If I am really participating in a rel form of life/LG, then I cannot ask whether 'God exists' is really true, or how I know it to be true, etc.

Now I find this completely untenable, and if I understand you, you do as well. As you point out, there is a logical diff btw the castling rule and 'God exists.'
3.28.2007 1:10pm
Bill Vallicella (mail) (www):
And as I recall Wittgenstein saying somehere, all logical differences are big differences.
3.28.2007 1:14pm
w_ockham (mail) (www):
Now I understand you. This seems connected with a view held by many mathematicians, that it is enough to define something in a way that yields no contradiction and lo! you have that thing. It exists. Cantor famously held this view:

"Mathematics is in its development entirely free and is only bound in the self-evident respect that its concepts must both be consistent with each other, and also stand in exact relationships, ordered by definitions, to those concepts which have previously been introduced and are already at hand and established. In particular, in the introduction of new numbers, it is only obligated to give definitions of them which will bestow such a determinacy and, in certain circumstances, such a relationship to the other numbers that they can in any given instance be precisely distinguished. As soon as a number satisfies all these conditions, it can and must be regarded in mathematics as existent and real. " (From the Grundlagen).

And the statement "… the essence of mathematics lies entirely in its freedom" is his epitaph. Frege (and of course Aristotle, and Mill) disagreed with this. It is one thing to define an X as being an A that is B. It is another question whether there are any X's.

I also found this passage when Alexis and I were pondering over the translation of Bonaventura's commentaries on the Sentences. It is supposed to be from Augustine on Free Will "Potest esse aliquid in rerum natura quod tua ratione non cogitas, non esse autem quod vera ratione cogitas non potest." We think it means that it is possible that something you haven't thought of does exist, but it is not possible that something you think of by true reason, fails to exist. I.e. If you can think of it 'by true reason', whatever that means, then it absoutely has to exist. Perhaps it means this: you can think of a unicorn as something like horse, but with a horn. But that is not thinking it through, as it were. If you really thought it through, by 'true reason', you would have to consider things like what sort of DNA this creature would have, and if you did work all that out, then you really would have a unicorn. Similarly, if you could make complete sense of the notion of God, there would have to be God.

(And indeed, this seems connected with the idea that logical differences are big differences. Also connected with a comment you made a way back on the notion of a disembodied mind - can we really make sense of that?).
3.29.2007 12:29am
Bill Vallicella (mail) (www):
I don't have any firm views on mathematical existence, but what more would you have to add to consistency to get mathematical existence? This is really beyond my competence, but as I understand it, Cantor defined 'cardinal number' in a way consistent with the rest of math (roughly, two sets have the same cardinality iff a 1-1 function can be defined that maps the membership of one onto the membership of the other) and then in his famous diagonalization argument proves that there have to be more reals than there are naturals, though both sets are infinite. In this way he demonstrates the existence of transfinite cardinals.

"Potest esse aliquid in rerum natura quod tua ratione non cogitas, non esse autem quod vera ratione cogitas non potest." Your reading of this seems right. Surely it it possible that there exist something I haven't thought of. And it is possible that there exist things that no finite mind ever has or ever will think of. But is it possible that there exist things that no finite mind could ever think of?

The second half of the assertion seems to imply that any object that is completely determinate exists just in virtue of its complete determinateness. I am inclined to reject that. God could have before his mind completely determinate objects which are yet merely possible. Think of the possible worlds that are possible but not actual. They and their members are completely determinate.

But Scotus, if I am not mistaken, thinks that complete determinateness entails existence, which is presumably why he rejects the distinctio realis. I'm for the latter.
3.29.2007 2:26pm
David Bennett (www):
I just wanted to thank all of you for posting on DZ Phillips. Last semester I took a course on the Philosophy of Religion that read his book The Concept of Prayer and I have been wrestling with it ever since then. My professor used Paul Tillich and DZ Phillips as a platform from which to drive home Process Theology (via Charles Harsthorne), something which I think is far too complicated to espouse as a theology for the average protestant. And which I would opine makes it far less valuable as a whole.
4.2.2007 11:07am
Bill Vallicella (mail) (www):
David,

You're welcome. I've read quite a bit of Hartshorne, but I don't see how Phillips could be used to bolster Process Theology. That would be a bit like using Wittgenstein as an introduction to Whitehead.
4.2.2007 12:00pm
David Bennett (www):
Disclaimer: This may be a bit of reading into the situation.

I believe he used it more as a move to disarm the average student. If that Professor, can disarm the average student of their normal assumed evangelical beliefs and thoughts on prayer then the average student will more humbly approach Hartshorne's work.

Normally, I would not say this about a professor, but this professor obviously showed that he had personally invested in Process Theology. As well he stated that he went to Claremont to study under DZ Phillips and specifically to study Process Theology (via John B. Cobb).

As for the logical suasion, I can't remember the precise argument, only that there had been one made.
4.2.2007 2:47pm
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